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Re: Off topic: Why a 2 in smoothing factor of XAverage?



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Jack,

I indirectly answered the question of 
why factor = 2 / (Length + 1) :)

due to the base case of 0 that the writer wanted to
have, than Length = 1 must somehow agree to 
the current price only.

To resolve that notice when length = 1,
factor = 2 / (1 + 1) = 1, which will do the
trick of making the previous xaverage term 
multiply by 0.

thus you must use 2 on top if you want 
length = 0 works ....

SystemWriter comes from a time of dark ages
in mathematics I guess :)

Still have this damn thing - but cannot run it
on any of my computer in the office anymore,
even though they are more powerful ...

-Lawrence


--- Jack Griffin <jack_2231@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
> --- Lawrence Chan <stnahc@xxxxxxxx> wrote:
> ...
> > OK - why Length + 1?
> > 
> > In the time of SystemWriter the length can be 0.
> > plug the length 0 in and you will have a good time
> > :)
> > 
> > The guy who wrote xaverage figured a base case of
> 0
> > is important to make the definition complete, 
> > thats all. Thus the definition used in TS is wrong
> > :)
> > 
> > When Length is huge and if it is not
> > single-precision,
> > it does not matter.
> > 
> > -Lawrence
> > 
> 
> That explains the +1, though you have to admit it
> would be better to simple give zero, an error, or C
> when idiots ask for a zero-length m.a.   
> 
> Still no good explanation as the factor of 2 though.
> 
> Thanks for the story!
> 
> Cheers,
> Jack
> 
> 
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=====
Lawrence Chan                http://www.tickquest.com    
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