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Would one of you mathematicians kindly take a moment and explain to me why
we'd require that a system demonstrate positive expected return
historically, before we'd put any money on it?
I'm specifically looking at Tharp's definition of expectancy, where he
states: (p.148) "Expectancy is a way of comparing trading systems while
factoring out the effects of time, position sizing, and the fact that one
is trading various instruments that have different prices."
Using _his_ definition, I think I can imagine a negative expectancy game
that would make money, since you could conceivably have a position sizing
algorithm that would "know" when to enormously increase your bet size on
winning trades, even if those winning %'s were very small.
Obviously, all things being equal, I guess you'd want a higher expectancy
rather than a lower one. But why would you insist it be positive? If I'm
reading him correctly, he's saying that you don't want to play a negative
expectancy at all. With his definition removing position sizing as an
input to the expectancy formula, I don't fully understand his reasoning.
Paul
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