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Hello,
Just a few posts ago I think I expressed clearly
what is needed when contacting support:
Sending screenshot alone means nothing to
me.
Since you do NOT provide all necessary details
(formula, settings) that are needed to analyse
the case you are giving me NO CHANCE to know what
you have done to obtain results.
_ASSUMING_ that this is the same case as Bert
reported earlier (comparing results obtained
with ^RUT with 50% margin with results
obtained with UAPIX without margin,
I can say that numbers ARE correct.
I can copy-paste response which I sent to him with exact calculations
explaining why:
=== MY RESPONSE TO BERT COPY PASTE SECTION 1
===
In this example
we assume the
following: that UAPIX movements are exactly 2x the movement of ^RUT
(so there
is exact 2x leverage between them). (Note that this assumption may not be
true in
reality and is used for illustration purposes only)
say UAPIX
moves from 23.77 to 24.77 (+4.2%) and your initial equity is
23770 so you
purchase 1000 shares. Your profit is $1000 and percent profit is +4.2%
At
the same time ^RUT moves 2.1% from 638.67 to 652.10.
Now your cash amount is
the same as in previous case 23770 but you are on
50% margin so your buying
power is twice as much 2*23770 = 47540.
So you can purchase 74.4359 shares
(for simplicity
in the example we assume that fractional purchases are
possible)
Your dollar profit is (652.10-638.67) * 74.4359 = $1000 (approx due
to rounding) - the same
as in first case.
Your PERCENT profit is
however:
$1000 / $47540 = 2.1%
This is so because in second case you
had to buy shares for $47540
while in first case you only spent
$23770.
If you want expectancy to be the same
in both cases you should not use
percent profits but dollar profits
instead.
=== MY RESPONSE TO BERT COPY PASTE
SECTION 2 ===
When you use leveraged instrument BOTH % profit and dollar profit are
twice
because PERCENT is based on SMALLER EQUITY VALUE.
( 2 * DOLLAR
GAIN ) / EQUITY = TWICE normal % profit
If you use magin account PERCENT
PROFIT is calculated from HIGHER EQUITY VALUE.
When use 50% margin account
your EQUITY is TWICE your cash.
So even if DOLLAR GAIN is twice, PERCENT GAIN
is the SAME because equity (buying power)
is TWICE.
( 2 * DOLLAR GAIN
) / ( 2 * EQUITY ) = DOLLAR GAIN / EQUITY = normal % profit
This is so
because on margin account you actually purchase TWICE the original amount
and your dollar profit is also twice as much. But those 2/2 reduce and %
profit remains the same.
If you are using leveraged instrument, things
are quite different:
you invest only HALF the amount you would invest on
margin account, yet dollar profits are the same.
Hence percent profit is
double.
=====
Best regards,
Tomasz Janeczko
amibroker.com
----- Original Message -----
Sent: Wednesday, August 31, 2005 1:58
AM
Subject: [amibroker] Re: AmiBroker
Support
Looks like the attachment didn’t
make it in the previous post …
= = = = = = = = = = =
=
TJ,
Really ? Maybe we don’t
understand the statistics … See the attachment. Same system on both
sides traded without margin on the left, with margin on the
right.
Should:
-
Avg Profit/Loss% in ALL TRADES
Section
-
Avg Profit % in WINNERS Section
-
Max Trade% Drawdown
be the same
?
If so can you please explain
?
Thanks,
Fred
= = = = = = = = = =
=
Follow up: I have made a check to verify
your report about avg. profit/loss
and all I can say is that I can not confirm your
observations.
Best regards,
Tomasz Janeczko
amibroker.com
----- Original Message -----
From: "Tomasz Janeczko" <amibroker@xxx>
To: <amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
Sent: Tuesday, August 30, 2005 5:51
PM
Subject: Re: [amibroker] Is AmiBroker Support on
Vacation, "rude" or what??
> Hello,
>
> I have forwarded your message to Marcin for
checking in detail.
> One thing is sure that we do not "selectively
decide" what issues to respond
to.
>
> I have quickly checked the issue you mentioned
and you don't ask any question
in it.
>
> All I can see are some
thoghts/observations.
>
> Best regards,
> Tomasz Janeczko
> amibroker.com
> ----- Original Message
-----
> From: "bistrader" <bistrader@xxx>
> To: <amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
> Sent: Tuesday, August 30, 2005 4:35
PM
> Subject: [amibroker] Is AmiBroker Support on
Vacation, "rude" or what??
>
>
>>I find it disturbing that AmiBroker Support
selectively decides what
>> issues it wants to respond to. I have talked
to several in our
>> FastTrack group that send emails to AmiBroker
Support and even Tomasz
>> asking for help. Oh sure, they get the
standard message saying that
>> a response will be provided within 24 hours
but they never hear a
>> thing on what they consider to be critical
items. One might ask, why
>> is AmiBroker Support and even Tomasz being so
selective in what they
>> repond to? I, for one, have no
idea.
>>
>> I certainly hope that this does not continue.
I really like the
>> software and the response by AmiBroker prior
to these string of cases
>> has been quite good.
>>
>> In any case, I hope it changes. I saw a
message recently where
>> someone on this board implied that someone
else was being rude. Is
>> it "rude" when one tells you that a response
will be provided and
>> none ever is? Is it "rude" when someone does
not respond even when
>> repeated requests are made. I hope not. I
would rather think that
>> he/she just got caught up in the moment. An
oversight, if you will.
>>
>> So, if interested, think about responding to
request 22642 originally
>> sent to AmiBroker on September 12th and then
again on September
>> 18th. Try to be nice as we should all
practice what we preach.
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I am using the free version of SPAMfighter for private users.
It has
removed 6178 spam emails to date.
Paying users do not have this message in
their emails.
Try SPAMfighter for free
now!
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