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[RT] GEN: The synthetic straddle trade



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Including the bulk of Mike's query below and explaining 
the trade in some detail for those wishing to follow:
 
2 things, Mike:
 
a/ Look for "cheap" options, I mean the foll by 
that:
- Sticker price of the closest OTM call/put is much 
less than the avg range of the past 3-5 days. For kicks, let us assume it is 5 
points ($500 per 100 shares).
 
- Current stock price is vey close to Strike price 
- in other words, the current stock price doesn't have too much more than what 
you pay for the option to reach its strike price where you get in the money. 
This ensures that the breakeven point of the synthetic straddle is equal to or 
less than the average range it normally moves.
 
- Ratio in, based on deltas and desired cash 
outlay.
 
Explained the above in computer sequence so you guys 
can code it in.
 
b/ Use this as the core position to trade the intraday 
noise against because it is not going to explode all by itself, after all, the 
stock is close to the strike because the strike is being pinned so this trade is 
swimming against the big player/ floor tide.
 
1 example from Nov expiration currently on my 
sheets - this one is NOT working out so you get to learn from my mistake. 3 
others are working fine, so I'll ignore them here but they're mentioned below so 
you can compare.
 
a/ Shorted IBM stock at 99.25 yesterday (REMEMBER THE 
ATR IS ASSUMED TO BE $5).
b/ Simultaneously bought 2x Nov 100 calls for 
$1.50
 
This means:
- I need IBM to move down $3 to $96.25 to break even 
(twice the amount of premium paid since I'm short half the stock as much as the 
long calls represent)
 
- I need IBM to move up $____________ you fill in the 
blank, given my position - on the upside - to break even.
 
Within that wide 96.25 - _______  breakeven range 
I lose money no matter where IBM goes - I do know that the MAX I lose is 
the $150 premium paid + the $75 per 100 shares (distance from where I'm short 
(99.25) to where my calls kick in (100) ) = $225.
 
In other words, I have to use the knowledge that 
the average intraday range (say $500) is greater than the max loss - and 
trade it to make up my max loss of $225 per 100 shares.
 
The risk? The stock gets "pinned" = paints a narrow 
range all day right around 99, as IBM has been doing - AND CONTINUES DOING THAT 
FROM THE TIME THE TRADE IS PLACED TO THE TIME IT EXPIRES. Not enough "amplitude" 
for me to successfully daytrade within the time available to 
expiration.
 
Now:
 
If IBM goes up & down 5 points intraday, that 2.25 
points is easy to recover. But if it goes up & down 1 point, then it is 
difficult if not hairy for I really have no edge in gaming that the next 1 point 
will be up or down if the last 1 point was down or up.
 
The benefits? 
 
If I'm caught short and some buy program kicks it up 5 
bucks while I'm not looking, I have a built in stop + automatic long at 
__________ which ensures I'm profitable.
 
If it doesn't rocket up but rockets down, below 96.25 
its miller time as prior bar's lows are taken out etc etc. <FONT 
color=#000080>I can cover anywhere I want below 96.25, AND RIDE THE CALLS INTO 
EXPIRATION FOR FREE.
 
So - given that I'm leaning long anyway given the extra 
calls, i may choose to just take potshots on the short side.
 
Or - depending on how the day unfolds. play both 
sides.
 
Hey, you never know, someone might take out IBM in a 
takeover or something!
 
The idea is to create a "low risk" zone in a high range 
stock and use that range to pay for the cost of the protection, and then ride 
the moonshots in either direction.
 
The $225 max risk? I think of it as working capital and 
make it so that a total wipeout on all such trades does not cripple my 
account.
 
-----------
As an aside - I checked out 
QQQs but there was too much premium at the 78 strike so I passed. What I did 
take and worked was SUNW, EMC and AMAT where all of them moved equal to or 
better than their ATRs and I could get the options "cheap" as defined 
above.
 
------------
 
>I have one question 
regarding these synthetic long straddles that you often recommend (buy OTM call, 
sell half as much stock or futures). I'm wondering where you see an advantage as 
compared to the purchase of a straddle (buy call, buy put). Let us compare, 
using last night's EOD prices. QQQ was at 77 3/8.
<BLOCKQUOTE 
style="PADDING-RIGHT: 0px; PADDING-LEFT: 5px; MARGIN-LEFT: 5px; BORDER-LEFT: #000000 2px solid; MARGIN-RIGHT: 0px">
  Here 
  is Position-1 showing long 10 QQQ Dec 80 Calls, short 500 
  QQQ:
  <IMG 
   
  Now this would be 
  Position-2, long 5 Dec QQQ 75 Calls and Puts each (long 
  straddle):
  <IMG 
  Max risk, time decay, deltas 
  and gammas etc. are approximately the same for both positions - not 
  completely the same, because there is no fixed strike price for the 
  underlying, but close.
  However, capital commitment 
  for Position-1 is $ 23,463.00 (short sale margin + option 
  premium), but only $ 5,190.00 (premium) for 
  Position-2.
  Why should I go for a 
  position that requires four times the capital outlay?
  Kind 
  regards,
  Michael 
  SuesserottTo 
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