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Re: trendiness measures



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> I think we are creating a problem where none exists. Don't think
> in terms of bars or time but rather samples. The smallest unit of
> measure is one sample so that's the base for any calculation such
> as standard deviation which is based on multiple samples. If you
> want to look at time periods other than daily, just change the bar
> interval.... weekly, 5 minutes, 10 ticks, whatever. The base unit
> for any calcs is still one sample. 

No argument.  But that misses the point I was making:  whether that 
one sample (day, week, tick, I don't care) is representative of a 
random walk.  Or, rather, whether that 1-bar sample is a good 
normalizing value for the market so the resulting values are 
meaningful.

E.g. let's say you have a market that trends strongly  -- let's say 
it increases by 1 on every bar, that's a pretty good trend.  :-)  The 
StdDev of a 1-bar move is 0.  Is that a good approximation of a 1-bar 
move in a random-walk market?  Not even close.  Do we NEED a good 
approximation of a 1-bar random-walk StdDev for this to work right?  
Or is a 1-bar move in the market, even though it's definitely not a 
random move, a good normalization value?  I'm not quite sure.

Gary