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Kelols,
The formula posted by you seems to be the same as mine except that you
have used a mutliplier of 15, over the summation of 10 periods.
What advantage would ensue using this method?
Please elaborate.
Thq
Dusant
--- In equismetastock@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "kelols" <kelols@xxxx> wrote:
> If you want the pure linear regression line, it's--
>
> ((15*(sum(cum(1)*C,10))-(sum(cum(1),10)*(sum(C,10)))) /
> ((10*sum(pwr(cum(1),2),10))-pwr(sum(cum(1),2),10))-pwr(sum(cum
> (1),10),2))
>
> You don't need the moving avg if you're not going to plot it over
the
> price graph.
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