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Hi Franco, thanks and sorry for my part too. Let's see if we can take
Yuki's advice and keep it civil. My comments below.
--- In amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "fgornati" <francogornati@xxxx>
wrote:
> --- In amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "quanttrader714"
> <quanttrader714@xxxx> wrote:
> > Good luck in lala land.
>
> Hi Mark, sorry about that post. Not fair and I regretted it just as
I
> hit the send button.
> The distinction about objectivity and subjectivity about price data
> is ambiguous. Data are certain, as long as they have they have been
> well recorded, but per se are of little significance. You need a
> model, a theory to interpret them. When you choose to apply a trend
> definition you are interpreting them in a subjective way, someone
> else could talk of trends in prices as 'windmills of the mind'.
> Every mechanical rule is a subjective choice made upon a theory. The
> fact that is applied sistematically doesn't mean it's objective.
It's
> only measurable as long as it applies to the past.
So far I'm with you.
> I think that prices are a historical process and there is nothing
> like an urn and a set of white and black balls. The system is open
> and undefined
I'd say it's an urn but that the balls are constantly changing
(nonstationarity).
>and when someone makes only use of past prices he's
> simply deciding to act on the basis of a well defined set of
> information, on the ground of a theory that assumes the existence of
> a stable generating process,
This is what my robustness posts were about.
>and is forming his expectation, positive
> or negative, accordingly.
> In all this process there is not so much objectivity, in my opinion.
On the rest of the issues that were not misunderstandings or
miscommunications, I think we need to agree to disagree.
I'm not a Bayesian, I'm more of a frequentist. Schools of thought are
debated all the time and we're definitely not going to solve it here.
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