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Dimitris,
I tried to explain this the other day ... maybe you didn't see my
post or have my email on ignore but I'll take another shot in case
you are listening ...
EMA is or should be equivalent to AMA when one is using a constant
for the length but for whatever reason the way that EMA is
implemented it takes a bunch of bars to catch up to AMA or vice versa
depending on your point of view. In a 10 bar EMA it takes 43 bars
before EMA and AMA have the same value following which they both have
the same values.
DEMA appears to be using an adaptation of AMA for it's calculations
as opposed to EMA as it produces plotable points right away. Here
again if one compares DEMA with ones own calculation for DEMA using
AMA and EMA the AMA version is identical to the imbedded DEMA and the
EMA version takes awhile to be on the same track.
Best Regards, Fred
--- In amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "DIMITRIS TSOKAKIS" <TSOKAKIS@xxxx>
wrote:
>
> >
> > --- In amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "Tomasz Janeczko"
> <amibroker@xxxx>
>
> > > DEMA is perfectly OK. The same with TEMA, WMA, etc.
>
> What do you mean "perfectly OK".
> After how many bars the built-in DEMA matches its EMA-equivalent
> described in your DEMA comment in AFL function reference.
> I have already posted #38859 with full explanatory codes and gifs
> showing the divergence of DEMA and EMA-equivalent.
> Did you read this message ?
> Would you apply equally DEMA or EMA-equivalent in a trading system?
> Would you equally rely upon any of these two "equivalent" formulas ?
> Would you trade your money based on DEMA or, equally, on EMA-
> equivalent?
> This would be "perfectly OK"
> If for a certain bar DEMA gives you 9 and the EMA-equivalent gives
> 11, then it is not perfectly OK, I could say it is quite far from
any
> reliability idea.
> I did not understand your reply, except if you didnīt read #38859
> Dimitris Tsokakis
> > >
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