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Hello,
 
Thanks Tomasz.
Regards
Bernard Bourée<A 
href="">bernard@xxxx
<BLOCKQUOTE 
>
----- Original Message ----- 
<DIV 
>From: 
Tomasz Janeczko 
To: <A title=amibroker@xxxxxxxxxx 
href="">amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx 
Sent: Wednesday, August 22, 2001 11:35 
AM
Subject: Re: [amibroker] Cum
Hello,
 
Cum(1) gives one-based bar index (so thefirst 
bar has the index of 1).
Your formula calculates zero-based 
bar index.
 
Best regards,
Tomasz Janeczko 
<BLOCKQUOTE 
>
----- Original Message ----- 
<DIV 
>From: 
Bernard 
Bourée 
To: <A title=amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxx 
href="">amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Sent: 22 August, 2001 11:08
Subject: [amibroker] Cum
Hi Tomasz
 
In the attached exploration I have plotted two 
columns :
the first one is simply Cum(1) , that is the 
bar number.
The second one the same bar number, but 
calculated trough a VBScript.
It appears a difference of one bar 
!
 
Tomasz, can you explain the reason 
?
 
Thanks
 
Bernard Bourée<A 
href="">bernard@xxxxYour 
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