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Hello,
Cum(1) gives one-based bar index (so the first bar
has the index of 1).
Your formula calculates zero-based
bar index.
Best regards,
Tomasz Janeczko
<BLOCKQUOTE
>
----- Original Message -----
<DIV
>From:
Bernard
Bourée
To: <A title=amibroker@xxxxxxxxxx
href="">amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Sent: 22 August, 2001 11:08
Subject: [amibroker] Cum
Hi Tomasz
In the attached exploration I have plotted two
columns :
the first one is simply Cum(1) , that isthe bar
number.
The second one the same bar number, but
calculated trough a VBScript.
It appears a difference of one bar !
Tomasz, can you explain the reason ?
Thanks
Bernard Bourée<A
href="">bernard@xxxxYour
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