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Re: [amibroker] Cum



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Hello,
 
Cum(1) gives one-based bar index (so the first bar 
has the index of 1).
Your formula calculates zero-based 
bar index.
 
Best regards,
Tomasz Janeczko 
<BLOCKQUOTE 
>
----- Original Message ----- 
<DIV 
>From: 
Bernard 
Bourée 
To: <A title=amibroker@xxxxxxxxxx 
href="">amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx 
Sent: 22 August, 2001 11:08
Subject: [amibroker] Cum

Hi Tomasz
 
In the attached exploration I have plotted two 
columns :
the first one is simply Cum(1) , that isthe bar 
number.
The second one the same bar number, but 
calculated trough a VBScript.
It appears a difference of one bar !
 
Tomasz, can you explain the reason ?
 
Thanks
 
Bernard Bourée<A 
href="">bernard@xxxxYour 
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  • References:
    • Cum
      • From: Bernard Bourée