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This is most likely a way too silly question, but if for every seller of a
stock there needs to be a buyer, how does money net sum "move into money
market". Is it net new cash that is moving in? I understand how an
individual or institutions for that matter move from equities into money
market but doesn't that mean someone else bought what the equities the other
got rid of and increased their exposure? Someone has to own what someone
else sold don't they (ignoring company buybacks)?
Also if we are witnessing what people call "a buyers strike", that I
understand somewhat. What buyers are there are at the bid or under and not
at the ask but they are still buyers or no trade would occur? Is there
anything that measures when the strike is over?
Ira you probably have something profound to say about all this? What am I
missing here in general??
don ewers
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