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Hi All:
Pardon my stupidity.
How can one predict or suggest that any eventual market crash should follow
the 1929 crash, based on only one sample, i.e., the 1929 crash?
I've heard about crashes similar to the 1929 n number of times since the
crash of 1987. Why pick on the 1929 crash?
Any valid statistical/scientific reasons to support such a case?
Regards,
Wong
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At 01:31 PM 03/09/2000 -0700, Earl Adamy wrote:
>Some months ago I posted a pair of charts for the pre-29 and current
>periods with some 20 years of history from the last major retracement on
>each chart - around 40%. The charts featured the percentage retracement
>of each significant dip. The two sets of charts show the same pattern of
>decreasing percentage retracements. This bull pattern is longer. The
>post-29 chart shows a series of increasing retracements. There is little
>doubt in my mind that eventually the post-current chart will follow the
>post-29 chart, however I'm not ready to call a top until I see the
>whites of the bear's eyes.
>
>Earl
>
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