RE: FW: attention maths gurus ..more detail

["c" <camacazi@xxxxxxxxxxx>]

The answer has been discovered ... Thanks  to MG .....

MG answered my prays precisely .... MG probably stands for Maths Guru

if interested his reply is below.

Cheers All

-----Original Message-----
From: mg []
Sent: Thursday, October 16, 2003 5:32 PM
To: camacazi@xxxxxxxxxxx
Subject: Re: FW: attention maths gurus ..more detail


i think i miss something, but here is my understanding:

if you use 2 days average, you want to have
x< (clos of today +x)/2

so

2x<close of today +x

this leads to

x<close of today.

if you use 3 days average, then you want to achieve:

x<(close of yestoday +close of today +x)/3

so
3x<close of yestoday +close of today +x
or
2x<close of yestoday +close of today

this leads to
x<(close of yestoday +close of today)/2


anyway, just my 2 cents

c <camacazi@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
just to clarify my problem.... in other words

Meaning close of tomorrow being = price 'x'
and x has to be < average of the ['close of today'{eg 1030} and ' close of
tomorrow' {which is 'x'} ]

cheers
cameron

-----Original Message-----
From: c [mailto:camacazi@xxxxxxxxxxx]
Sent: Thursday, October 16, 2003 4:34 PM
To: omega-list@xxxxxxx com
Subject: attention maths gurus

I have this problem and i need some assistance with mathematics.

Here is my problem , i am backtesting a new system , but i need to calculate
the closing price of tomorrow that would make the close of tomorrow be under
the average close of two days ago.

eg

close[3] = 1000
close[2] = 1010
close[1] = 1020
close today = 1030

what would be the close of tomorrow to make the close of tomorrow <
average(close,2) ?
{i need the formula too not just the answer :O) [grin]}
This maths is making my brain hurt.....