Re: AW: back to the well again... parallel trend lines

[Bob Fulks <bfulks@xxxxxxxxxxxx>]

At 12:30 PM -0700 1/4/01, Gary Fritz wrote:

> > Solution: P4 = (x3+x2-x1, y3+y2-y1)
>
>Awww, that's too EASY...  :-)
>
>Good point, Michael.  I got so caught up in trigonometry that I
>didn't think of the obvious approach.
>
>That will produce a line from P3 to P4 at the same angle as the
>original P1-P2 line.  P3 will be one endpoint.  If you wanted the
>parallel line centered around P3, you could just add/subtract 1/2 the
>x2-x1 and y2-y1 values to the P3 location.


Unless you are using a log price scale...