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There was some discussion here the other day about the use of
non-correlated indicators. Seems like a very sound idea.
Trouble is, I can't seem to see intuitively how indicator x would or would
not correlate with indicator y. Would a 3 bar MA be at all similar to a 20
bar MA? On one level of thinking, it would seem that all price-based
indicators are inherently correlated.
Would anyone care to help me master the obvious?
Thanks...
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