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Re: [EquisMetaStock Group] Indicator Help



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Jaime,

You sure about that? Try this:

a:= 0;
a:= PREV + 1;
a1:= 0;
a1:= PREV + 2;
a2:= 0;
a2:= PREV + 3;
a;a1;a2;

or 

a:= 0;
a:= PREV + 1;
a1:= a;
a1:= PREV + 2;
a2:= a;
a2:= PREV + 3;
a;a1;a2;

Either way they all work and that's only 3 variables. Metastock can 
be a lmiting code but if you are really creative you'll be surprised 
at the possibillities. The only limit to using prev is the 20 
variable limit and even that can be exceeded. 

Preston


--- In equismetastock@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "jaime" <xtal32768@xxx> wrote:
>
> Hi Preston,
> 
> Yes, with PREV it works for one variable, the problem is that i 
need 
> to work with several variables, so i can't use PREV.
> 
> Jaime.
> 
> --- In equismetastock@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, pumrysh <no_reply@> wrote:
> >
> > Jaime,
> > 
> > a:= 0;
> > a:= PREV + 1;
> > a;
> > 
> > Problem is that the first value of a is 1 not 0. After the first 
> bar 
> > you do get an ascending value but it will start at 1 because the 
> > variable is further defined as prev +1 in the second statement. 
> > 
> > Preston
> > 
> >  
> > 
> > 
> > 
> > --- In equismetastock@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "jaime" <xtal32768@> 
wrote:
> > >
> > > Hi Preston,
> > > 
> > > My formula set "a" to 0, yes, and then sets "a" to its 
previous 
> > value 
> > > plus 1. In a normal programming language, the variable holds 
the 
> > last 
> > > value set. That does not happen in this case.
> > > 
> > > I believe the reason for this resides in the way MS executes 
the 
> > > scripts. I believe MS takes one line of script and calculates 
the 
> > > values for all the bars in the chart, then takes the next line 
of 
> > > script and calculates the values for all bars again, and so on.
> > > 
> > > What i was expecting MS to do was calculate all values of the 
> > script 
> > > for one bar, then advance to the next bar and calculate all 
> values 
> > > again for that bar.
> > > 
> > > These 2 algorithms produce different results. In my example, 
MS 
> > will 
> > > calculate "a:=0" for all bars, then it will calculate "a:=ref
(a,-
> > 1) 
> > > +1;" for all bars and the function ref(a,-1) will always 
return 0.
> > > 
> > > Preston, i really appreciate your offer but i think it's not 
> worth 
> > > it. The code comments are not in English and it would take 
some 
> > time 
> > > to translate and prepare the code to show here.
> > > 
> > > Thanks.
> > > Regards,
> > > Jaime
> > > 
> > > 
> > > 
> > > --- In equismetastock@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, pumrysh <no_reply@> 
wrote:
> > > >
> > > > Jaime,
> > > > 
> > > > Ron is correct.
> > > > 
> > > > Your formula sets the a variable as 0 every bar. 
> > > > 
> > > > It is possible to translate other programs such as wealth-
lab 
> to 
> > > > metastock...I have done it. Show us the code and we'll see 
what 
> > we 
> > > > can do.
> > > > 
> > > > Preston
> > > > 
> > > > 
> > > > 
> > > > 
> > > > 
> > > > --- In equismetastock@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "jaime" <xtal32768@> 
> > wrote:
> > > > >
> > > > > Hi Ron,
> > > > > 
> > > > > Thank you for the reply. 
> > > > > Take notice that i'm adding 1 to the previous value of a 
(in 
> > > > theory). 
> > > > > So, if in one bar the variable a is equal to 0, in the 
> > following 
> > > > bar 
> > > > > it will add 1 and a equals 1. After another bar, i will 
add 1 
> > > more 
> > > > > and a should be equal to 2, and so on. That's the theory 
as 
> > far 
> > > as 
> > > > i 
> > > > > can understand MS.
> > > > > In practice thing don't happen that way. It seems that MS 
> Will 
> > > not 
> > > > > consider the value of the variable that is plotted when 
the 
> > > > function 
> > > > > Ref() is used, it considers always the constant 0. I don't 
> > know 
> > > > why, 
> > > > > it doesn't make sense to me and it limits even more the MS 
> > Script.
> > > > > 
> > > > > I cannot use the function Cum() because my goal is not 
> > producing 
> > > > an 
> > > > > incrementing line. I just simplified my script so that i 
> could 
> > > > > explain the issue to you. My goal is to translate a small 
> > program 
> > > > > from wealth-Lab Developer to MS. Unfortunately i think it 
> > won't 
> > > be 
> > > > > possible.
> > > > > 
> > > > > Regards,
> > > > > Jaime
> > > > > 
> > > > > 
> > > > > 
> > > > > 
> > > > > --- In equismetastock@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "Ron Berlin" 
<rsb_44@> 
> > > > > wrote:
> > > > > >
> > > > > > Jaime-
> > > > > > 
> > > > > > 
> > > > > > Your code sets a to the constant 0 (zero).  You then add 
1 
> > to 
> > > it 
> > > > to 
> > > > > get the 
> > > > > > constant 1. That's what you are plotting. Try setting a 
to 
> > 3. 
> > > > > You'll get a 
> > > > > > plot of 4.
> > > > > > 
> > > > > > You're looking for
> > > > > > CUM(1);
> > > > > > Which is a bar counter increasing from left to right.
> > > > > > 
> > > > > > Ron
> > > > > > 
> > > > > > 
> > > > > > >From: "jaime" <xtal32768@>
> > > > > > >Reply-To: equismetastock@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> > > > > > >To: equismetastock@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> > > > > > >Subject: [EquisMetaStock Group] Indicator Help
> > > > > > >Date: Tue, 24 Apr 2007 21:37:11 -0000
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > >Hi,
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > >I'm trying something with Metastock and its behavior is 
> not 
> > > > what i
> > > > > > >expected. When i create an indicator with the following 
> > code:
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > >a:= 0;
> > > > > > >a:= Ref(a,-1) + 1;
> > > > > > >a;
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > >MS plots a straight line with the value 1. I was 
expecting 
> > a 
> > > > line
> > > > > > >increasing by +1 in each bar. Anyone knows why this 
> happens?
> > > > > > >I'm using MS Pro 8.0.
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > >Thank you,
> > > > > > >Jaime
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > >
> > > > > > >
> > > > > >
> > > > >
> > > >
> > >
> >
>




 
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