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Hi Preston,
My formula set "a" to 0, yes, and then sets "a" to its previous value
plus 1. In a normal programming language, the variable holds the last
value set. That does not happen in this case.
I believe the reason for this resides in the way MS executes the
scripts. I believe MS takes one line of script and calculates the
values for all the bars in the chart, then takes the next line of
script and calculates the values for all bars again, and so on.
What i was expecting MS to do was calculate all values of the script
for one bar, then advance to the next bar and calculate all values
again for that bar.
These 2 algorithms produce different results. In my example, MS will
calculate "a:=0" for all bars, then it will calculate "a:=ref(a,-1)
+1;" for all bars and the function ref(a,-1) will always return 0.
Preston, i really appreciate your offer but i think it's not worth
it. The code comments are not in English and it would take some time
to translate and prepare the code to show here.
Thanks.
Regards,
Jaime
--- In equismetastock@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, pumrysh <no_reply@xxx> wrote:
>
> Jaime,
>
> Ron is correct.
>
> Your formula sets the a variable as 0 every bar.
>
> It is possible to translate other programs such as wealth-lab to
> metastock...I have done it. Show us the code and we'll see what we
> can do.
>
> Preston
>
>
>
>
>
> --- In equismetastock@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "jaime" <xtal32768@> wrote:
> >
> > Hi Ron,
> >
> > Thank you for the reply.
> > Take notice that i'm adding 1 to the previous value of a (in
> theory).
> > So, if in one bar the variable a is equal to 0, in the following
> bar
> > it will add 1 and a equals 1. After another bar, i will add 1
more
> > and a should be equal to 2, and so on. That's the theory as far
as
> i
> > can understand MS.
> > In practice thing don't happen that way. It seems that MS Will
not
> > consider the value of the variable that is plotted when the
> function
> > Ref() is used, it considers always the constant 0. I don't know
> why,
> > it doesn't make sense to me and it limits even more the MS Script.
> >
> > I cannot use the function Cum() because my goal is not producing
> an
> > incrementing line. I just simplified my script so that i could
> > explain the issue to you. My goal is to translate a small program
> > from wealth-Lab Developer to MS. Unfortunately i think it won't
be
> > possible.
> >
> > Regards,
> > Jaime
> >
> >
> >
> >
> > --- In equismetastock@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "Ron Berlin" <rsb_44@>
> > wrote:
> > >
> > > Jaime-
> > >
> > >
> > > Your code sets a to the constant 0 (zero). You then add 1 to
it
> to
> > get the
> > > constant 1. That's what you are plotting. Try setting a to 3.
> > You'll get a
> > > plot of 4.
> > >
> > > You're looking for
> > > CUM(1);
> > > Which is a bar counter increasing from left to right.
> > >
> > > Ron
> > >
> > >
> > > >From: "jaime" <xtal32768@>
> > > >Reply-To: equismetastock@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> > > >To: equismetastock@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> > > >Subject: [EquisMetaStock Group] Indicator Help
> > > >Date: Tue, 24 Apr 2007 21:37:11 -0000
> > > >
> > > >Hi,
> > > >
> > > >I'm trying something with Metastock and its behavior is not
> what i
> > > >expected. When i create an indicator with the following code:
> > > >
> > > >a:= 0;
> > > >a:= Ref(a,-1) + 1;
> > > >a;
> > > >
> > > >MS plots a straight line with the value 1. I was expecting a
> line
> > > >increasing by +1 in each bar. Anyone knows why this happens?
> > > >I'm using MS Pro 8.0.
> > > >
> > > >Thank you,
> > > >Jaime
> > > >
> > > >
> > > >
> > >
> >
>
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