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OK, this is just on the example specifically - see Roy's reply as
well for better examples of using the cum(1) function.
> buy:=If (some boolean test),cum(1),0)
>
> Does this mean it's like this
> If TRUE then
> buy = buy + 1;
> else
> buy = 0;
This is actually NOT what the MS statement does. It starts off
by creating a time series that accumulates by 1 each bar. Let us
call this C1 to clarify, say
C1 = cum(1)
so
C1(1) = 0
and
C1(t) = C1(t-1) + 1
or, simply,
C1 = 1, 2, 3, 4 ....
Note (this is sometimes useful) if you had something like
C2 = cum(5)
then
C2 = 5, 10, 15, 20 ...
Now, what that MS line of code you gave does, is to switch between
either zero or C1. So if you are at time period 100, and previously
the boolean test was false, but now is true, that function will return
100, then 101, 102 ..., and not 1, 2, 3 ... as your code implies. So
maybe the code should be
increment c1 REGARDLESS
if true then
result = c1
else
result = zero
Regards
MG Ferreira
TsaTsa EOD Programmer and trading model builder
http://www.ferra4models.com
http://fun.ferra4models.com
--- In equismetastock@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "dpleydel" <dpleydel@xxxx> wrote:
>
>
> Hi
>
> I've looked at the primer but I still don't quite get what this
> function is doing.
>
> for example I've seen it used in a this this regard:
>
> buy:=If (some boolean test),cum(1),0)
>
> Does this mean it's like this
> If TRUE then
> buy = buy + 1;
> else
> buy = 0;
>
> Thanks
> David
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