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Roy:
I tried it for two different forumla pairs;
The first pair to plot a 10 day simple moving average that
is adjusted one day back:
#1
SMA:=Mov(CLOSE,10,S);
Ref(SMA,-1);
#2
Mov(Ref(CLOSE,-1),10,S);
Both indicators graphed on top of each other, proving that
they are equivalent.
The second pair is a plot of the moving average oscillator
adjusted one day back. This formula is from Cedar Creek
Trading:
#1
Output:=Mov((Mov(C,3,E) - Mov(C,13,E)),3,S);
Ref(Output,-1);
#2
Mov((Mov(Ref(C,-1),3,E) - Mov(Ref(C,-1),13,E)),3,S);
Each indicator was graphed into a separate window, then #2
was dragged and dropped into the window of #1. Both indicators
graphed on top of each other.
This shows that both methods of using Ref produce the same
results.
Bob
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Original Message:
-----------------
From: Roy Larsen rlarsen@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Date: Sun, 9 Feb 2003 12:27:10 +1300
To: Metastockusers@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Subject: Re: [Metastockusers] MS Formula Question
Bob
Get a little daring - dump both your formulas into one test indicator and
see if your two signals are identical or not. This is a very simple exercise
and as well as a visual check you can use the data window to verify data
values for two or more signals.
Roy
> I have a Metastock formula question using the ref function.
> I want to graph the slope of a moving average. Here are two
> possible formulas. Do they have the same affect?
>
> #1
> SMA:=Mov(CLOSE,10,S);
> SMA-Ref(SMA,-1);
>
> #2
> Mov(CLOSE,10,S)-Mov(Ref(CLOSE,-1),10,S);
>
> The bigger question is does it matter where I apply the Ref
> function? Either the ref -1 when calculating the second
> moving average shown in example #2, or doing a ref -1 on the
> results of the first moving average shown in example #1?
>
> This becomes an issue when dealing with complicated formulas
> such as a sine moving average or an adaptive moving average.
> Example #1 is easier to code and understand.
>
> I hope that my question is clear.
> Thanks.
>
> Bob
>
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