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Re: information frequency vs tradeability



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rudolf stricker wrote:
>
>Jeff et al,
>
>thank you for pointing me to this article.
>
>On Fri, 22 Feb 2002 10:55:07 -0800 (PST), you wrote:
>
>>See the following pages at John Conover's site...
>>he just posteed these within the last week or so.
>>There's a lot of math used to derive his results, but
>>feel free to skip to the "examples" given on these
>>pages.  The main point is that if you are interested
>>in computing "risk", the normality assumption will
>>severely underestimate your risk.  
>>
>>http://www.johncon.com/john/correspondence/020213233852.26478.html
>
>But as far as I can see, it deals not with my subject above, but
>rather with the bet size problem, where of course _the details_  of
>the probability distribution (like eg tail volume etc) become most
>important.
>

Yes, I was only addressing the "risk" aspect of your posting.


>The topic I tried to address is more basic. In (my) simple words: 
>Which given discreet (price) time series is well suited to derive
>appropriate trading actions? What "necessary condition" has to be
>fulfilled by a  time series to be the basis for a successful trading
>system? What may be a convenient measure to define this "tradeability"
>of a time series? And as can be seen from my subject, "information
>frequency" imo is a relevant parameter here.
>
>Because this calculation procedure is rather simple, everyone who is
>interested in the tradeability of his/her favorite security could
>easily measure it, and I'd like to compare your results with my
>results, eg in terms of 
>
>	"non-tradeability" = max (stadev (price changes; 1 time step);
>			stadev (price changes; 2 time steps))
>			 / stadev (price changes; 4 time steps)
>
>If this fraction approaches (or even exceeds) 1, the security is
>untradeable for the information frequency at hand, and the only (*)
>way out to make this security tradeable is to increase the information
>frequency. [(*) other measures to be discussed]
>

Hmmm, suppose a stock increases in EOD value 90% of the time.  Suppose it
is not very volatile, on any time frame, so then your "non-tradeablity"
parameter is very close to 1.  In other words, I think I've constructed
an example were we could care less about StdDev, as long as we've
identified a trend.  As a recent, concrete example, take a look
at the price chart for DLX.  Very low volatility, identifiable
uptrend.  What does your "non-tradeability" parameter turn
out to be for this one?


Jeff