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[amibroker] Re: PositionSize / Capital



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I was gone most of the day so didn't have a chance to keep up with 
the posts.

I agree that the results are the opposite of what one would expect. I 
think in the cases you cite, the formulas should be 100,000*Risk/ATR. 
So if your risk tolerance is 2% and the ATR is 2, the position size = 
100,000*.02/2 = 2000/2 = 1000 where the 1000 is shares of stock and 
is independent of the price of the stock, i.e., you can buy 1000 
shares of ANY priced stock that has an ATR of 2 and your risk would 
be the same. In the case of the $50 stock, your position equity would 
be $50*1000 = $50,000 when ATR=2. Similarly, you could buy 
twice (not half) as much of the stock when ATR=1.

Although the position sizing being independent of the price of the 
stock seems counterintuitive, I just reread the chapter in Van 
Tharp's book on this ("Trade Your Way to Financial Freedom") and I 
think that's the way it's supposed to be.

I'm not sure what this means for our 20% maximum position equity 
allocation (to achieve diversification).

Dan


--- In amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, Al Venosa <advenosa@xxxx> wrote:
> Ed:
> 
> Your formula doesn't make much sense to me. The term stoploss/ref
(C,-1) 
> is simply the volatility of the stock, expressed as a fraction of 
the 
> price, times a multiplier. Thus, for a $50 stock whose ATR is, say, 
2 
> (highly volatile), and if you are using a multiplier of 2 with an 
equity 
> of $100 K, then your positionsize statement specifies that the 
position 
> size of the trade will be only $8,000 (100,000 * 4/50). For a less 
> volatile stock (one whose ATR is only 1), then your positionsize 
would 
> be only $4,000. So, you are allocating less money for less volatile 
> stocks and more money for more volatile stocks, and the amount 
allocated 
> in each case is tiny relative to your equity. This is the opposite 
of 
> what volatility-based trading is all about. Did you leave something 
out?
> 
> Al Venosa
> 
> ed nl wrote:
> 
> > well I just mentioned this because the range is rather narrow.  
When 
> > testing this MM stuff on my system I noticed that it behaved very 
poor 
> > especially between 1998 and 2001. This is exactly the period the 
> > markets were very volatile. SInce volatility reduces the position 
> > size  my system hardly invested any money.
> >  
> > I tried giving risky trades more weight using (not sure if this 
is 
> > correct but it does approximately what I intended):
> >  
> > *PositionSize* = -100 * (stopLoss / Ref(*C*,-1));
> > this as I expected gives a better result than just using a 
constant 
> > percentage over the last 3 year and also better than the correct 
MM 
> > approach. Between 1998 and 2001 however it performs worse, 
suffering 
> > when the market goes crazy.
> >  
> > rgds, Ed
> >  
> >  
> >
> >     ----- Original Message -----
> >     *From:* danielwardadams <mailto:danielwardadams@x...>
> >     *To:* amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx 
<mailto:amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
> >     *Sent:* Sunday, December 12, 2004 4:06 PM
> >     *Subject:* [amibroker] Re: PositionSize / Capital
> >
> >
> >     I love it. This also helps avoid the tiny positions somebody 
(Al?)
> >     mentioned yesterday (and I've experienced also). But why do 
you say
> >     it will usually probably use the 10 or 20% sized positions? 
Shouldn't
> >     that mean you're setting your risk parameter unrealistically 
low?
> >
> >     --- In amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> >     <mailto:amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>, "ed nl" <ed2000nl@x
> >     <mailto:ed2000nl@x>...> wrote:
> >     > This way you can use a range: Maximum 20% minimum 10% of 
equity:
> >     >
> >     > rsk = -2; // 2%
> >     > PositionSize = Min(-10,Max(-20,rsk * Ref(C,-1) / stopLoss));
> >     >
> >     > In practice it most of the time it probably either uses 10% 
or 20%.
> >     >
> >     > Ed
> >     >
> >     >
> >     >
> >     >   ----- Original Message -----
> >     >   From: danielwardadams
> >     >   To: amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> >     >   Sent: Sunday, December 12, 2004 3:40 PM
> >     >   Subject: [amibroker] Re: PositionSize / Capital
> >     >
> >     >
> >     >
> >     >   Al & Ed,
> >     >   This is exactly where I ended up yesterday (hours after 
my post).
> >     >   When I tried it, though, I always ended up taking the 20%
> >     positions
> >     >   rather than those defined by my risk. Thinking it wasn't 
working,
> >     I
> >     >   gave up and went to bed.
> >     >
> >     >   But since someone else thinks this should work, obviously 
I need
> >     to
> >     >   play with it some more.
> >     >
> >     >   Dan
> >     >
> >     >   --- In amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "ed nl" <ed2000nl@xxxx> 
wrote:
> >     >   > Al,
> >     >   >
> >     >   > about the part:   "Your suggestion to limit 
positionsize not to
> >     >   exceed any more than 20% of equity may be the solution 
since it
> >     goes
> >     >   hand in hand with the philosophy of money management. 
That is, do
> >     not
> >     >   allow any one position to exceed, say, 10 or 15 percent 
of your
> >     >   equity. The Turtles did that, and I think lots of traders 
do
> >     that,
> >     >   too. So, I see nothing wrong with that. Have you coded 
this in
> >     AFL"
> >     >   >
> >     >   > I think you can solve this using:
> >     >   >
> >     >   > rsk = -2; // 2%
> >     >   > PositionSize = Max(-20,rsk * Ref(C,-1) / stopLoss);
> >     >   >
> >     >   > now it will never use more than 20% of equity.
> >     >   >
> >     >   > About the minimum number of trades I don't know. In my 
system
> >     that
> >     >   would be impossible because sometimes good entries just 
dry up
> >     and I
> >     >   can't find even find 5.
> >     >   >
> >     >   > rgds, Ed
> >     >   >
> >     >   >   ----- Original Message -----
> >     >   >   From: Al Venosa
> >     >   >   To: amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> >     >   >   Sent: Sunday, December 12, 2004 3:11 PM
> >     >   >   Subject: Re: [amibroker] Re: PositionSize / Capital
> >     >   >
> >     >   >
> >     >   >   Dan:
> >     >   >
> >     >   >   Thanks for the ideas. You're not rambling; you're 
thinking,
> >     and
> >     >   this discussion is healthy. Good ideas may stem from the
> >     discussion,
> >     >   so by all means, keep posting.
> >     >   >
> >     >   >   I don't think you need a new built-in function called 
MinPos.
> >     >   Maybe TJ came up with a solution the other day by 
suggesting you
> >     set
> >     >   the max open positions to some large value like 10 of 15, 
even
> >     though
> >     >   you plan to take on no more than 5 at any time. So, if 
you don't
> >     use
> >     >   up all your equity using volatility-based positionsizing, 
you
> >     might
> >     >   add on new positions with this approach. I haven't tested 
this
> >     idea
> >     >   yet, but I will. The problem occurs when the opposite 
happens,
> >     >   namely, all your equity is used up before you are able to 
add
> >     your
> >     >   4th and 5th positions. Your suggestion to limit 
positionsize not
> >     to
> >     >   exceed any more than 20% of equity may be the solution 
since it
> >     goes
> >     >   hand in hand with the philosophy of money management. 
That is, do
> >     not
> >     >   allow any one position to exceed, say, 10 or 15 percent 
of your
> >     >   equity. The Turtles did that, and I think lots of traders 
do
> >     that,
> >     >   too. So, I see nothing wrong with that. Have you coded 
this in
> >     AFL?
> >     >   I'm like Yuki: good with concepts buy lousy with creative
> >     >   programming.
> >     >   >
> >     >   >   Al Venosa
> >     >   >
> >     >   >   danielwardadams wrote:
> >     >   >
> >     >   >
> >     >   >     After thinking about this some more, I think all 
I've
> >     described
> >     >   is
> >     >   >     what could be accomplished with two more built-in
> >     variables.
> >     >   MinPos
> >     >   >     could say you want no less than some minimum number 
of
> >     >   positions (5
> >     >   >     in my example) and MaxPositionSize could say you 
want to
> >     >   allocate no
> >     >   >     more than X% of capital to any one position (20% in 
my
> >     example).
> >     >   >
> >     >   >     Within these constraints, your actual position 
sizing
> >     methond
> >     >   could
> >     >   >     be anything you want.
> >     >   >
> >     >   >     I'm probably rambling .........
> >     >   >
> >     >   >     Dan
> >     >   >
> >     >   >     --- In amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "danielwardadams"
> >     >   >     <danielwardadams@xxxx> wrote:
> >     >   >     >
> >     >   >     > Al & Anthony,
> >     >   >     > I've also seen the lower returns for volatility 
based
> >     versus
> >     >   equal
> >     >   >     > equity position sizing in the past and didn't 
know what
> >     to do
> >     >   about
> >     >   >     > it (assuming I wanted more positions for more
> >     >   diversification).
> >     >   >     >
> >     >   >     > I'm not sure how one would code it in .AFL, but 
would the
> >     >   following
> >     >   >     > represent a reasonable compromise?
> >     >   >     >
> >     >   >     > (1) Start with an equal equity based model based 
on,
> >     say,  5
> >     >   >     > positions (position size = -20). So each part of 
the pie
> >     >   equals 20%
> >     >   >     > of total equity.
> >     >   >     > (2) Determine actual position size within each 
piece of
> >     the
> >     >   pie
> >     >   >     based
> >     >   >     > on volatility based sizing. So, depending on your 
risk
> >     >   parameter,
> >     >   >     one
> >     >   >     > might use only 17% of one piece of the pie, 13% of
> >     another
> >     >   piece,
> >     >   >     and
> >     >   >     > 20%, 8%, and 11% of the other pieces.
> >     >   >     > (3) Sum the used portions of the pie (in this case
> >     >   17+13+20+8+11 =
> >     >   >     > 69%) and see what you have left. 31% in case.
> >     >   >     > (4) Allocate the remaining cash according to the 
equal
> >     equity
> >     >   >     model.
> >     >   >     > This means you get one more 20% piece of pie and 
only
> >     have
> >     >   11% cash
> >     >   >     > remaining.
> >     >   >     > (5) Apply the above using your ATR based position 
sizing
> >     >   >     recursively
> >     >   >     > until your cash is minimized. So if you only are 
able to
> >     use
> >     >   9% of
> >     >   >     > the piece of pie left in (4) you take the 11% 
left from
> >     that
> >     >   piece
> >     >   >     > plus the 11% cash and you have 22% -- enough for 
another
> >     >   position.
> >     >   >     So
> >     >   >     > in this case you end up with 7 positions and only 
2% left
> >     in
> >     >   cash.
> >     >   >     > So your cash is minimized and all your positions 
adhere
> >     to
> >     >   the ATR
> >     >   >     > based position sizing.
> >     >   >     >
> >     >   >     > Like I say, I have no idea how to code it but 
intuitively
> >     it
> >     >   makes
> >     >   >     > sense to me.
> >     >   >     >
> >     >   >     > Thoughts/comments?
> >     >   >     >
> >     >   >     > Dan
> >     >   >     >
> >     >   >     > (And, yes, I'm sure I'm not the first person to 
think of
> >     it
> >     >   so my
> >     >   >     > apologies to those who have gone before).
> >     >   >     >
> >     >   >     > --- In amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "Anthony 
Faragasso"
> >     >   >     <ajf1111@xxxx>
> >     >   >     > wrote:
> >     >   >     > > Hello Al,
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > > You stated:
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > > "the lower the volatility, the lower the risk 
and
> >     >   therefore, the
> >     >   >     > smaller the positionsize for that stock. "
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > > Is this a correct assumption ? ...Would you 
want a
> >     larger
> >     >   >     > positionsize on a less risk position , and a 
smaller
> >     position
> >     >   on a
> >     >   >     > more volatile one ?
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > > Anthony
> >     >   >     > >   ----- Original Message -----
> >     >   >     > >   From: Al Venosa
> >     >   >     > >   To: amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> >     >   >     > >   Sent: Saturday, December 11, 2004 7:53 AM
> >     >   >     > >   Subject: Re: [amibroker] PositionSize / 
Capital
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >   Ed,
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >   I, too, have confirmed many times with 
backtesting
> >     what
> >     >   you
> >     >   >     > report, viz,, that positionsize = -x gives better
> >     performance
> >     >   >     results
> >     >   >     > than using volatility-based MM positionsizing. 
The non-MM
> >     >   code I've
> >     >   >     > used in the past is:
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >   posqty = Optimize("posqty",5,2,10,1); // no. 
of
> >     stocks
> >     >   active
> >     >   >     at
> >     >   >     > any given time
> >     >   >     > >   PositionSize = -100/posqty; //equal equity 
model
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >   I think I know what the problem is, but I 
have not as
> >     yet
> >     >   >     figured
> >     >   >     > out how to solve the problem with AFL. If you use 
the MM-
> >     >   based
> >     >   >     > positionsize statement as we have discussed (equal
> >     volatility
> >     >   >     model),
> >     >   >     > i.e., PositionSize = -1 * C/StopAmt, and examine 
the
> >     >   tradelist, you
> >     >   >     > will likely discover that, often, not all 5 
stocks are
> >     active
> >     >   all
> >     >   >     the
> >     >   >     > time. In other words, either you have idle capital
> >     earning
> >     >   nothing
> >     >   >     or
> >     >   >     > you have fewer active stocks than you want. Why 
is this?
> >     >   Because
> >     >   >     some
> >     >   >     > stocks, which might not be as volatilie as 
others, use up
> >     >   more of
> >     >   >     > your capital to initiate a position than a more 
volatile
> >     >   stock.
> >     >   >     > Consequently, your capital is used up before you 
have a
> >     >   chance to
> >     >   >     > enter into your 4th or 5th stock. Instead of 
having 5
> >     open
> >     >   >     positions,
> >     >   >     > you might only have 3 because of this. Checking
> >     positionsize
> >     >   >     > shrinking doesn't help because you'll discover 
you might
> >     have
> >     >   tiny
> >     >   >     > positions in your 5th stock. The fewer stocks you 
have,
> >     the
> >     >   less
> >     >   >     > diversified you are, and therefore the more risky 
your
> >     >   portfolio.
> >     >   >     The
> >     >   >     > more risk, the higher the DDs. This problem 
cannot happen
> >     >   with the
> >     >   >     > equal equity model since all positions are equal 
in size,
> >     by
> >     >   >     > definition.
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >   One possible way around this might be to 
increase
> >     your
> >     >   margin
> >     >   >     so
> >     >   >     > that equity is expanded enough to allow full 
funding of
> >     all
> >     >   >     > positions. But, again, this also increases your 
risk.
> >     Another
> >     >   way
> >     >   >     > might be dynamically setting your risk to fit the
> >     volatility
> >     >   of
> >     >   >     each
> >     >   >     > stock individually (the lower the volatility, the 
lower
> >     the
> >     >   risk
> >     >   >     and
> >     >   >     > therefore, the smaller the positionsize for that 
stock).
> >     >   However,
> >     >   >     > this changes your model so that you no longer 
have equal
> >     >   >     > volatility/equal risk (getting closer to the 
equal equity
> >     >   model).
> >     >   >     So,
> >     >   >     > the problem remains unsolved for the moment. I 
have not
> >     had
> >     >   time to
> >     >   >     > devote to cracking this problem yet, but some day 
I hope
> >     to
> >     >   do
> >     >   >     this.
> >     >   >     > If you have any ideas, I'm all ears.
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >   Al Venosa
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >   ed nl wrote:
> >     >   >     > >     Thanks for your effort Al. It is very clear,
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >     In one of my earlier posts I posted
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >     // money management block
> >     >   >     > >     stopLoss = Ref(bbb*ATR(20),-1);
> >     >   >     > >     // trade risk
> >     >   >     > >     tr = IIf(Buy,(stopLoss / 
BuyPrice),stopLoss /
> >     >   (ShortPrice +
> >     >   >     > stopLoss));
> >     >   >     > >     // renormalisation coefficient
> >     >   >     > >     rc = 0.02 / tr;
> >     >   >     > >     // positionsize
> >     >   >     > >     PositionSize = rc * -100
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >     it actually gives the same result as your:
> >     >   >     > >     PositionSize = -2.0 * IIf
> >     (Buy,BuyPrice,ShortPrice) /
> >     >   stopLoss
> >     >   >     > >     except for short positions. Exact the same 
it would
> >     be
> >     >   if I
> >     >   >     > use: tr = IIf(Buy,(stopLoss / BuyPrice),stopLoss /
> >     >   (ShortPrice));
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >     Unfortunatelly I do not get better results 
this
> >     way.
> >     >   Using
> >     >   >     just
> >     >   >     > a simple PositionSize = -10 still gives somewhat 
better
> >     >   results.
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >     rgds, Ed
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >       ----- Original Message -----
> >     >   >     > >       From: Al Venosa
> >     >   >     > >       To: amibroker@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> >     >   >     > >       Sent: Saturday, December 11, 2004 4:19 AM
> >     >   >     > >       Subject: Re: [amibroker] PositionSize / 
Capital
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >       ed nl wrote:
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >         Al,
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >         but how do you implement the risk 
factor now?
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >         ed
> >     >   >     > >       Ed:
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >       Let us suppose you have established your 
risk as
> >     1%
> >     >   (i.e.,
> >     >   >     > the maximum you are willing to lose on a trade). 
Let us
> >     also
> >     >   >     suppose
> >     >   >     > your initial equity is $100,000. So, if the stock 
you buy
> >     (or
> >     >   >     short)
> >     >   >     > goes down by the amount based on your system, you 
lose
> >     only
> >     >   $1000,
> >     >   >     > keeping you in the game. Now, let us say you 
defined your
> >     >   >     volatillty-
> >     >   >     > based stop in terms of 2*ATR(20), which you 
incorrectly
> >     >   assigned to
> >     >   >     > the variable TrailStopAmount. I say 'incorrectly' 
because
> >     the
> >     >   >     > TrailStop in AB was designed to mimic the 
Chandelier
> >     exit,
> >     >   which is
> >     >   >     > basically a profit target type of stock (it hangs 
down
> >     like a
> >     >   >     > chandelier from the highest high since the trade 
was
> >     >   initiated, if
> >     >   >     > long). I don't think you want the TrailStop to be 
your
> >     money
> >     >   >     > management stop. Rather, the MM stop is the max 
stoploss,
> >     >   defined
> >     >   >     as:
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >       StopAmt = 2*ATR(20);
> >     >   >     > >       ApplyStop(0,2,StopAmt,1);
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >       So, if your stock declines by 2*ATR(20) 
from your
> >     >   entry,
> >     >   >     you
> >     >   >     > exit with a 1% loss. Let's take an example. Stock 
A is
> >     >   selling for
> >     >   >     > $40/share. It's ATR(20) is $1/shr or 2.5% of 40. 
Your
> >     stop
> >     >   amount
> >     >   >     is
> >     >   >     > 2*ATR(20), which is $2/shr. How much stock do you 
buy?
> >     You
> >     >   simply
> >     >   >     > divide your risk, $1000, by 2*1, which is 500 
shares.
> >     This
> >     >   amounts
> >     >   >     to
> >     >   >     > an investment of $40/shr * 500 shrs or $20,000. 
All of
> >     this
> >     >   can be
> >     >   >     > coded in one simple line of AFL plus the 2 lines 
above
> >     >   defining the
> >     >   >     > MM stoploss:
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >       PositionSize = -1 * BuyPrice/StopAmt;
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >       where -1 is 1% of current equity (0.01 * 
100,000
> >     or
> >     >   $1000),
> >     >   >     > BuyPrice = $40/shr, and StopAmt is 2. Keep in 
mind that a
> >     >   negative
> >     >   >     > sign means 1% of CURRENT equity, which means 
compounded
> >     >   equity, not
> >     >   >     > just a constant initial equity of $100,000. If 
you carry
> >     >   through
> >     >   >     the
> >     >   >     > above math with your renormalization coefficient
> >     notation,
> >     >   you wind
> >     >   >     > up with the exact same answer.
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >       One more thing. When you place your order,
> >     assuming
> >     >   you are
> >     >   >     > trading with EOD data, you do not know what the 
buyprice
> >     is
> >     >   until
> >     >   >     you
> >     >   >     > buy the stock, which is the next day. So, what 
most
> >     traders
> >     >   do is
> >     >   >     > base their positionsize on the closing price of 
the night
> >     >   before
> >     >   >     the
> >     >   >     > entry. Therefore, to place an order in the 
evening to be
> >     >   filled in
> >     >   >     > the morning at the open, your positionsize 
statement
> >     would
> >     >   actually
> >     >   >     > be:
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >       PositionSize = -1 * C/StopAmt;
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >       where C is the closing price on the night 
before
> >     you
> >     >   buy.
> >     >   >     So,
> >     >   >     > if you use the code SetTradeDelays(1,1,1,1), then 
the
> >     above
> >     >   formula
> >     >   >     > is OK. However, if you use SetTradeDelays
(0,0,0,0), then
> >     you
> >     >   have
> >     >   >     to
> >     >   >     > ref the C back a day.
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >       This is probably more information than 
you were
> >     >   asking
> >     >   >     about,
> >     >   >     > but I hope it helps.
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >       Cheers,
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >       Al Venosa
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >
> >     >   >     > >
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> >     >   >     > >
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> >     >   >     >
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